Part 6
There may not be a Jesus card available to play in the debate over gay marriage, but there are a few different Paul cards to choose from. Indeed, there are three common passages attributed to Paul in the New Testament that speak against homosexual intercourse, and all three are frequently quoted as evidence by Christians who believe homosexuality is a sin.
Each of these passages are found in what are known as the Pauline Epistles. An "epistle" is simply a Greek word for "letter," and is generally used nowadays to refer to books in the New Testament that are formatted as letters sent from early Christian leaders to various churches or individuals. "Pauline" is an adjective used to describe epistles that are thought to have been written by Paul. These epistles were written for various reasons, usually addressing problems that a particular church was facing, correcting doctrinal errors, and offering encouragement. There are 13 Pauline Epistles in the New Testament, but only 7 of them are widely accepted by scholars as being authentically written by Paul.[1]
We find our passages on homosexuality in three different Pauline Epistles: Romans, 1 Corinthians, and 1 Timothy. This article will look at each passage, address why these verses were included in Paul's epistles, and analyze their relevancy in the modern Christian debate over gay marriage.
As a warning to my readers, the following article is more explicit in its descriptions of sexual intercourse than my previous articles. Paul uses specific terms to refer to specific homosexual acts, and such terms need to be addressed if we are to understand Paul's views on homosexuality. For those who are uncomfortable with reading about sex in a frank manner, viewer discretion is advised.
Romans
Romans is widely believed among scholars to have been written by Paul, and is his longest known letter. Paul is writing to the church in Rome to address tensions between the Gentiles within the Jesus Movement and the Jewish community. I refer to these Gentiles as belonging to "the Jesus Movement" rather than "Christianity" because the latter term refers to a distinct religion outside of Judaism. Such a distinction did not exist in the time of Paul. Indeed, Paul and Jesus were not Christians; they were Jews! The Jesus Movement can best be understood as a movement within Judaism.Paul understood Gentile conversion to the Jesus Movement as a legitimate way to bring Gentiles into the new world order which would be established by the Jewish Messiah (Jesus). While Jewish communities were generally fine with Gentiles worshiping their god without fully converting to Judaism,[2] they were not necessarily keen on the Jesus Movement, nor Paul's views on full Gentile inclusion in the Messiah's new world order. This created significant religious tension between Jews and Gentiles.
In Romans, Paul is writing to ease such tensions. He writes his letter to the Gentiles in the Roman church, explaining their place in relation to Jews in light of the return of Jesus. He begins his letter by addressing how pagan religion and culture came to exist as a result of humans turning away from God. It is in this context that we find Romans 1, our first passage against homosexuality.
In Romans 1.18-32, we see Paul explaining that despite God's eternal power being invisible, all humans should know of him through observation of the natural order of creation. Paul claims that despite knowing God, humans turned away from him, and created idols for themselves. He writes:
...they exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images resembling a mortal human being or birds or four-footed animals or reptiles. Therefore God gave them up in the lusts of their hearts to impurity, to the degrading of their bodies among themselves, because they exchanged the truth about God for a lie and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator...
So Paul is saying that because these humans worshiped false gods, God abandoned them to their lustful ways, resulting in sexual immorality. Paul then goes into detail in the next verses, which is where we find explicit references to both male and female homosexual intercourse:(1.22-25)
For this reason God gave [those who worshiped idols] up to degrading passions. Their women exchanged natural intercourse for unnatural, and in the same way also the men, giving up natural intercourse with women, were consumed with passion for one another. Men committed shameless acts with men and received in their own persons the due penalty for their error.
Here Paul is saying that homosexual intercourse was the result of humans going against the natural order of creation, just as idol-worshiping was.[3] Paul also points out that males who have participated in homosexual intercourse have received a penalty for their sexual error.(1.26-27)
[[Okay, so you are saying that Paul thought homosexual intercourse was contrary to the natural order of creation, and was the result of a distance between humans and God. You are also saying that Paul thought there was a penalty for men who participated in homosexual intercourse. So why would any Christians think that homosexuality is not a sin?]]
Many Christians don't trust Paul's views on the natural order of creation. It's true that Paul viewed homosexual intercourse as a perversion of nature. While there are not many references to the natural order of creation in the Pauline Epistles, we do see Paul make the claim in 1 Corinthians 11 that nature itself teaches that long hair on a man is degrading, but on a woman "it is her glory" because it covers her body (this makes those pictures of a white Jesus with lengthy golden locks seem even more silly). Few Christians today choose to take Paul seriously and consider long hair on men and short hair on women to be contrary to nature, and therefore don't see a need to take his views on homosexual intercourse being contrary to nature all that seriously either.
[[Okay, so perhaps most Christians don't really take all of Paul's ideas about the natural order of creation seriously. But what about his reference to those who partake in male homosexual intercourse receiving their penalty? Shouldn't that be taken seriously?]]
It was a common belief in Paul's day by both Jews and pagans that immoderate "unnatural" sex among males would bring about physical ailments. This is likely grounded in the idea that men's ejaculations drained them of their life-force, and so when used excessively resulted in disease and weakness.[4] Views like this have been largely discredited by modern science. While sexually transmitted diseases are very real, they can be contracted through both homosexual AND heterosexual intercourse, and can affect both men AND women; they are not a unique to male homosexual intercourse.
It's worth noting that some have interpreted this passage to mean that Paul is referring to punishment in the afterlife, but this does not seem to be the case. Note that Paul is NOT saying that they will receive their penalty after they have been resurrected to be judged by Jesus. He is saying that they have already received it "in their own persons," implying a physical, this-worldly consequence.
To trust Paul's reasoning on why homosexual intercourse is wrong, we need to trust his understanding of the natural world and the human body, which many modern Christians view as outdated (Paul did live about 2,000 years ago, after all).
1 Corinthians
1 Corinthians is also widely accepted as being authentically written by Paul. Paul is writing to the church at Corinth, and in chapter 6 we find him addressing some behavioral issues the church was facing. According to verses 1-8 there were members of the church who were taking fellow members to pagan courts to resolve their issues. Paul sees this as shameful, since he believes that issues among churches should be settled among believers, not pagan government officials.Following these verses, we find our second Pauline passage against homosexuality. Paul writes:
Do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived! Fornicators, idolaters, adulterers, male prostitutes, sodomites, thieves, the greedy, drunkards, revilers, robbers—none of these will inherit the kingdom of God. And this is what some of you used to be. But you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God.
Paul is providing a list of sins that many of the members of the Corinthian church used to be guilty of before they were "washed" (this likely is referring to baptism) and made righteous through Jesus. It seems Paul is using this list to emphasize the incompatibility of pagan society with church society, which ought to be unified, not divided, especially by means of pagan authority.(6.9-11, emphasis in my own)
Of the list of sinners that Paul claims will not inherit the kingdom of God, we find 3 that are related to homosexuality: fornicators, male prostitutes, and sodomites. Let's analyze these three terms in Greek to see if we can get a better understanding of what Paul is saying.
Fornicators. The Greek here is the word pornoi, which simply means sexually immoral persons. This is a general term for those who practice sexual deviancy, which for Paul likely included any kind of sexual relations outside of marriage. For Paul, pornoi probably did include people practicing homosexual intercourse, but also incest, adultery, and bestiality, and even a husband having sex with his wife on her period (which as we saw in Part 4 was one of the "abominations" in the Torah).
Male Prostitutes. The Greek word here is malakoi, which literally means "soft ones." The translation "male prostitutes" is a bit misleading; it really referred to boys and men who were penetrated anally by other males. While this would certainly include male prostitutes who allowed other men to penetrate them, it also included young boys who had little say in the matter. While it was acceptable in ancient Greek culture for men to use their young apprentices as malakoi, it was forbidden by Roman law for a man to use a freeborn boy to have sex with; it was only acceptable to use slave boys and male prostitutes. Both the Romans and the Greeks considered an adult male citizen taking the submissive role of a "soft one" to be shameful, since they believed it signified femininity and weakness.
The translators of the NRSV passage quoted above likely didn't think Paul was saying that boys who were the victim of pedophilia would not inherit the kingdom of God, so they simply translated malakoi as "male prostitutes."[5] Since adult male homosexual relationships were generally seen as taboo in the Roman Empire, it makes sense that Paul would be referring to male homosexual prostitutes, not young boys. Along similar lines, he was likely not referring to homosexual intercourse in committed and loving relationships like we have today either, making its relevancy in the debate over gay marriage questionable.
Sodomites. The Greek here is arsenokoites, and the exact translation is unclear. It is the combination of the Greek words for "male" and "bed." What is clear is that translating it as "sodomite" is problematic. Indeed, the term for "Sodom" is not found in the word, and as we saw in Part 3, the sin of Sodom is never identified as homosexual intercourse in the Bible. Arsenokoites is very likely meant to contrast malakoi, referring to men who have sex with other men as they would a woman. Or in other words, men who penetrate the "soft ones." It was socially acceptable for men to engage in such sexual behavior, so long as they were taking the active/penetrating role, and not using freeborn boys or as their malakoi.
Of the words used by Paul to describe groups of people who would not inherit the kingdom of God, 3 are related to homosexuality. However, pornoi was a general term for sexual deviancy, not homosexuality specifically, and malakoi and arsenokoites referred to specific roles of male-on-male anal sex, which was typically associated with pedophilia and prostitution. It would be inappropriate to say these terms are direct comparisons to our understanding of homosexual practices found in loving relationships such as gay marriages today.
1 Timothy
Our last passage on homosexuality can be found in 1 Timothy. Unlike Romans and 1 Corinthians, 1 Timothy's place among the Pauline Epistles has been doubted by many scholars. This is not shocking to those who have studied early Christianity; forgery was a common practice of the ancients, and there are many scriptures that have been discovered which claim to be written by early Christian leaders well after the time of their deaths. However, as was pointed out in Part 5, the books within the Bible are seen as authoritative to Christians, regardless of who really wrote them. As such, we will take 1 Timothy's passage just as seriously as we took Romans' and 1 Corinthians' for the sake of this article.1 Timothy was written to combat false teachers in Christian communities. In verses 3-7 we see Paul warning Timothy (a known disciple of Paul) about those who would teach the law (that is, the Torah) in a way contrary to the way Paul had taught it. The passage following this warning is where we find our verses on homosexuality:
Now we know that the law is good, if one uses it legitimately. This means understanding that the law is laid down not for the innocent but for the lawless and disobedient, for the godless and sinful, for the unholy and profane, for those who kill their father or mother, for murderers, fornicators, sodomites, slave traders, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to the sound teaching that conforms to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, which he entrusted to me.
Paul is saying that laws in the Torah were not established for those who were innocent (the Greek word here literally means "righteous"), but rather for those who contradict the teachings of Paul (that includes you, long-haired Jesus!). Paul lists groups of people as examples of those who contradict his teachings, and among them we find "fornicators" and "sodomites." And you guessed it! The Greek terms used here are pornoi and arsenokoites.(1.8-11, emphasis is my own)
As we discussed above, pornoi and arsenokoites are not adequate terms for relating to our modern understanding of gay love and marriage. It may be worth noting that the author of 1 Timothy did not include malakoi among his list. It's unclear exactly why it was excluded, but perhaps was due to malakoi's frequent association with innocent boys who were used sexually by older men, not merely male prostitutes as the NRSV translated it in 1 Corinthians.
There are three different passages in the Pauline Epistles that condemn homosexual practices. The first is found in Romans, which is based on Paul's understanding of the natural world. Many Christians, however, see Paul's understanding as outdated and no longer relevant to loving homosexual relationships. The other two passages are found in 1 Corinthians and 1 Timothy, which use terms that either signify general sexual deviancy (not specifically homosexuality), or specific roles in male-on-male anal sex, which often were associated with pedophilia and male prostitution, not homosexual intercourse within committed and consensual partnerships.
Paul's passages against homosexuality are for many the most persuasive in the Christian debate over gay marriage. However, they were written with a 1st-century understanding of the natural world that has for the most part been rejected today, and in response to homosexual practices that were understood quite differently than they are now. While we can't say Paul supported homosexual intercourse in his ancient culture, we can say the subject is, biblically speaking, much more grey in our modern-day context than many Christians would care to admit.
Notes
[1] There used to be 14 traditional Pauline Epistles, which included Hebrews. Hebrews was written anonymously, but by the second century was attributed to Paul. While some early Christians noticed differences in its style when compared to other Pauline Epistles, it was assumed to be Pauline for much of Christian history. It was around the 16th century when Christians started doubting it as Pauline, and today few scholars (including theologians) consider it to be written by Paul.
[2] Many Gentiles would attend Jewish synagogues and accepted pieces of Jewish doctrine, but did not want to convert to Judaism (which would require them to live by the law, and for men to be circumcised). These Gentiles were known as "God-Fearers." It was likely the God-Fearers who largely took to Paul's doctrine of the Jesus Movement, since he taught that they could be fully grafted into God's covenant with Jews, yet still maintain their cultural identity as a Greek/Roman. With converts being mostly Gentiles, the Jesus Movement soon became a distinct religion from Judaism, which we call "Christianity."
[3] Some Christians have interpreted Paul's words to teach what I call the "doctrine of distortion." Basically, this doctrine claims that a husband and wife reflect the image of God together in marriage and in sexual union, and so any form of homosexual intercourse or marriage is really idolatry since it distorts the image of God. This is not what Paul is saying. According to Paul, it was because of idolatry that God gave humans up to their sexual immorality. In other words, Paul taught that the idolatry separated humanity from God, and that homosexuality was a result of this separation. Nowhere does he equate homosexual intercourse with idolatry. Additionally, it doesn't seem that Paul viewed the combination of male and female roles in marriage/sex to reflect the image of God together. In 1 Cor. 11.7, Paul teaches that "man ought not to have his head veiled, since he is the image and reflection of God; but woman is the reflection of man."
[4] Philo of Alexandria (a Jew writing in the first century) held such views. In his Embassy to Gaius, he lists lusting after boys as one of the wicked acts performed by Caligula that caused him to become physically sick, since it "destroy[ed] both body and soul." It's also worth pointing out that semen (along with breast milk) was thought to be refined blood in the body (see Galen's On the Natural Faculties). Losing it excessively out of lust (which homosexual intercourse was perceived as mere acts of lusts, since it did not produce lineage) was thought to drain one's strength and result in disease. According to the Acts of Paul (likely written in the second century), upon being beheaded, Paul's neck bled milk rather than blood. This probably seems weird (and gross) to many modern readers, but isn't as ridiculous as it sounds if one believes milk is merely refined blood. It's unclear why the author of Acts of Paul wrote this, perhaps to show that Paul was filled with life and spiritual nourishment. Regardless, it is clear that the ancients (including Paul) had a quite different understanding of the natural world than we hold today.
[5] Many popular translations such as the NIV and ESV combine malakoi and arsenokoites and simply translate them as "men who have sex with men" or "men who practice homosexuality." The NASB translates malakoi as "effeminate," and arsenokoites as "homosexuals" (which is incredibly misleading, given that the term specifically refers only to males, and "homosexuals" designates both males and females).
This comment has been removed by a blog administrator.
ReplyDeleteI deleted your comment previously because I found it rude. A robot/human relationship is not directly comparable to a human/human relationship. Comparing homosexual marriages to man/family, man/beast, or man/robot is little more than veiled name-calling, in my opinion. It's like me saying "you think homosexuality is wrong? Well why don't you think stoning them is wrong too?" I would be assuming that because you held different values than me, you must be okay with supporting them violently (and it's even supported biblically!).
DeleteI think I understand your point in relation to my blog posts, and you might be surprised that I agree with you. My posts do nothing to show that homosexuality is legitimate or not sinful, only showing that people who use these verses to legitimate their views rely heavily on specific interpretations of the text that are not so black-and-white.
If you would like to plainly state your serious point, then do so politely.
The slate article on robot marriage made the connection to the Supreme court decision ( Obergefell v. Hodges) not me: "Obergefell v. Hodges legalizing same-sex marriage across the United States has already spawned speculation about “what will be next” in expanding marital rights . . ." then it talks about advances in AI and robot marriage. They are the ones who brought this up. I am just taking the same logic you are using to justify something that Scripture does not directly address and apply it to this subject. Of course the point is that if we apply your justifications for gay lesbian marriage to robot marriage, we get a slippery slope to making marriage whatever anyone wants to make it. Society has abandoned the standard it once held and is now left to flounder until a dictator imposes his/her will on the rest. If there is any offense to be taken it should be at the Slate writer who wrote the article and made the connection, not me.
ReplyDeleteIt is your blog and you have the prerogative to police it as you wish. It seems that you do not trust the readers to decide for themselves what is offensive.
You still posted it, it doesn't really matter if they were your original words or not. The "point" you are making is a slippery slope logical fallacy. It's coming from a place of fear of change. Like I said, robot/human marriage is not the issue at hand, nor is it directly related to gay marriage.
ReplyDeleteYou seem to think that "my logic" is to show that because the Bible doesn't technically say gay marriage is wrong, it must be okay. That has never been the point of this blog (and as you will see, I refute this way of thinking in my conclusion to the series). I am addressing the historical context of these verses because many people DO use the Bible this way, and it's good to be educated on the verses that frequently get thrown around. Yes, society abandoned the standard it once had, which is how society progresses. Indeed, if society did not ever abandon it's old standards for new ones, a raped virgin would still have to marry her attacker, women would not be able to be pastors, and technology would be non-existent (the standard for getting around used to be walking or horse or buggy, not electric cars!). Not to mention we would all be nudists (which isn't all bad), This doesn't mean that we should "progress" for simply the sake of change. But nobody has made marriage "whatever" they want it to be, we have just included homosexuals in the fold. We have made marriage more inclusive to other consenting adults who want to commit themselves to each other; while that is a change, I think it is for the better.
I will not "police" my blog to exclude voices just because they disagree with me, but if any comments seem mean-spirited or do not contribute to the conversation at hand, I have no problem deleting them. It's not about trusting or not trusting my readers: I found it offensive and irrelevant, so I removed it. You made your point just fine without it.
Did you read the Slate article? It is a serious article about what the Obergefell case will lead to.
ReplyDeleteIf I am guilty of the slippery slope logical fallacy then so is the Slate article writer and the dissenting opinion (four judges) of the Supreme Court Obergefell case. I don’t mind being lumped into that distinguished company.
In the dissenting opinion Roberts wrote:
“The majority expressly disclaims judicial “caution” and omits even a pretense of humility, openly relying on its desire to remake society according to its own “new insight” into the “nature of injustice.” Ante, at 11, 23. As a result, the Court invalidates the marriage laws of more than half the States and orders the transformation of a social institution that has formed the basis of human society for millennia, for the Kalahari Bushmen and the Han Chinese, the Carthaginians and the Aztecs. Just who do we think we are? . . . The real question in these cases is what constitutes “marriage,” or—more precisely—who decides what constitutes “marriage”?
If there is no slippery slope, what or who gets to decide what is the guardrail? Who should decide the definition of marriage and what should that definition be?
Roberts continues . . . (page 21)
ReplyDelete“It is striking how much of the majority’s reasoning would apply with equal force to the claim of a fundamental right to plural marriage. If “[t]here is dignity in the bond between two men or two women who seek to marry and in their autonomy to make such profound choices” why would there be any less dignity in the bond between three people who, in exercising their autonomy, seek to make the profound choice to marry? If a same-sex couple has the constitutional right to marry because their dissenting children would otherwise “suffer the stigma of knowing their families are somehow lesser,” why wouldn’t the same reasoning apply to a family of three or more persons raising children? If not having the opportunity to marry “serves to disrespect and subordinate” gay and lesbian couples, why wouldn’t the same “imposition of this disability,” serve to disrespect and subordinate people who find fulfillment in polyamorous relationships?”
I see, admittedly I did not read the article. You prefaced your comment by saying that it was a parody, and then provided the link to the article so I assumed that meant the article was in the same vein as your later comments. For those interested in reading the referenced article, the link is here: The Slate Article
ReplyDeleteI stand by my claim that you along with others are relying on the slippery slope logical fallacy. Of course, that doesn't mean you are wrong, only that it isn't helpful in a debate. You are afraid of what change could bring, that's fine. But you probably agree that interracial marriage is okay and that underage marriage is not well-suited for our culture. These are changes in the institution of marriage! And yes, they spawned more change, such as gay marriage. But instead of dwelling on what change could bring, why not focus on why gay marriage is specifically an unacceptable change? Are you worried about procreation? I'm not, the world has way too many people on it, and population is growing too rapidly to maintain. Are you worried that it contradicts biblical teaching? If so, then doesn't it seem wrong to force a Christian value on a nation that values religious pluralism? I guess I don't see what is so harmful about gay marriage; it's literally the exact same thing as heterosexual marriage, except with matching genitalia. I believe that marriage between two consenting adults is a basic human right, and as such the Supreme Court was in the right to ensure that the State governments did not hinder it.
On what basis is it right? If a case comes before the court justifying polygamy or robot marriage, or marriage to siblings, or pets what do you use to say whether it is right our not? Who should decide the definition of marriage and what should that definition be? Please answer this question. As Judge Roberts pointed out, if harm is the criterion, there is no reason why the "right to marry" should not extent to other entities
ReplyDeleteYou deleted my post because it offended you and your arguments. Slate is a liberal publication. Do you think they would allow anything offensive to gays/lesbians to be posted? If it did not offend them, then your charge against me holds no water.
I already told you that I thought the article was a parody (which you labeled as such, although now I realize you meant your commentary under the link, not the link itself). I saw the comparison to gay marriage and robot marriage to be silly and ridiculous, so I assumed it was part of the parody, and in line with the mocking tone which you directed at me. I apologize for my misunderstanding, and have already posted the link to your article myself. You did not “offend my arguments” (and to be honest, I’m not sure how it's possible for an argument to be offended).
ReplyDeleteI did not find the article offensive. They were comparing gay marriage and robot marriage to reflect on the future, and NOT making a direct comparison by equating the two. As the writer points out, robots would first need to be recognized as humans (which unlike gay people, is not common sense), to be a legitimate safeguard for humans (our technology is not there yet), and that robot marriage is practical in a legal sense (which it is not, as our laws currently stand).
Once again, I fail to see your point as being anything other than a slippery slope fallacy. Not to mention irrelevant to the blog article that we are supposed to be "commenting" on. I am choosing to ignore your challenge for me to find a basis for what is right in our legal system; that is incredibly complex, as it is shaped by our society's values, which are shaped by various religions, our education system, government officials, etc. It's a discussion worth having, but I see little value in having it here.
Isn't it ironic that you, the creator and god of this blog, assert your right to make the rules about what is offensive because you think it does "hurt somebody"? I, on the other hand, favor the right of the blog community to determine what is offensive.
ReplyDeleteThis comment has been removed by a blog administrator.
ReplyDeleteInteresting thoughts on the evolution of robot-human relationships and how transgender people fit into sports! But I deleted your comment since it has nothing to do with my article or Paul's views on homosexuality.
Delete